Scot Indy Polling

I didnt suggest the snp got a majority of Scottish votes . You suggested that because labour got the majority of Scottish seats , that this meant scotland was somehow supportive of the union. I pointed out the snp got the majority of seats in various elections mentioned.

so now you are onto the majority of votes?

 so are you saying because scotland didnt vote for labour by majority , they got 35% of the vote cast , 20 % of the Scottish electorate  , and the combined unionist vote in the general election was one of the lowest unionist votes. shares ( 38% of total electorate  from memory ) on record , so therefore , scotland doesn't support the union ?


by the way Steve ,the snp may be the largest , but they are merely one of many pro independence parties in scotland. Do keep up please.

 

You do know that making up false accounts of what others have posted is trolling don't you.  Do desist.

I have always referred to votes on this but then it probably distresses you that on votes cast in those elections independence parties didn't get a majority.  Let's remind you of the last one:

SNP:           30-5%
Alba:              0.5%
All the rest:  69.5%

www.bbc.co.uk/news/election/2024/uk/regions/S92000003

I don't think it is a massive majority no but why should voter turnout be skewed towards pro independence voters? Where is your evidence for that beyond pure supposition on your part?.

And just over half might not be a massive majority but it is a whole lot more than that which Starmer's massive parliamentary majority is built on. And however narrow a majority might be, it nevertheless constitutes a mandate. Not a mandate for independence by the way, merely a mandate for holding another referendum on it. If a majority in that referendum voted for the Union, independence wouldn't happen. And unless a further substantial change in the constitutional settlement legitimised a call for another referendum and the Scots granted an electoral mandate for it, that would be it for a while. Brexit forced through against the expressed will of the Scots was the change that legitimised a fresh call this time.

If you could get beyond your anti-nationalist bias you might actually see the logic of all that. Unlike you, I invest little emotion in Scotland remaining in the Union or not and generally think that is up to them. But unlike Amadan I invest little emotion in Scotland leaving the Union either. Again I think that is up to them. I am the neutral one here with no axe to grind. I am just viewing the cold logic of actual reality, untainted by personal desires one way or the other.

I don't believe that is proven at all and appears to be just supposition on your part. After all anything Holyrood has the power to do re laws and levies in Scotland affect all Scots resident there, regardless of their loyalties. And I could equally suppose that Scottish unionists might well be highly motivated to vote for unionist parties to prevent a pro-independence majority. I cannot prove that either, but as a supposition it is equally valid logically.

So what you have stated above is supposition only, unsupported by anything resembling evidence thus far. We have had this same problem in other debates. A lot of supposition strongly held to yet unsupported by either evidence or personal experience. Unless you can back up your supposition with evidence it has zero credibility and value as a debating point. 

No it isn't. It is perfectly logical for Scots to vote in their own interest at Holyrood regardless of whether they wanted it or not. And the best way to ensure they dont get more devolution or an independence referendum is to vote for parties opposing that. And you are distorting my words in defence of an un-evidenced argument. I never said that opponents of devolution were more likely to vote in Holyrood elections, just that you have failed to present any evidence that they are less likely to when in reality it is just as much in their interests to vote as it is anyone else's. Thinking otherwise seems counterintuitive to me.

You have nothing but a supposition that seems logical to you whilst ignoring any equally valid suppositions based upon logic that don't support you. Without evidence you have no case. Come to the table with your evidence that opponents of independence are less likely to vote even though it is in their best interests to do so. Because what seems counter-intuitive to me is that people will not vote in their own best interests simply because they voted against having such a power in the past.

Others have gotten independence, why not Scotland? They deserve it too just like India etc etc etc

Polls show that for periods of time they did want it, just like polls show for periods of time people wanted Brexit and then Remain, what happened to changing your mind as fanatical Remoaners lectured us about for years in turn? And if I use the phrase 'double standards' I'll get accused of some absurd thought crime and must be spreading defamation and disinfo etc etc